2013年9月30日星期一

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Exam Code: QAWI301V3.0
Exam Name: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional Business Objects Web Intelligence XI 3)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 57 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which statement describes the performance impact that data tracking has on report refresh times,
assuming that the data changes but the number of rows retrieved and the data volume stays the same?
A.It will refresh up to three times faster.
B.It will refresh up to three times slower.
C.It will refresh faster each time the report is refreshed.
D.It will refresh slower each time the report is refreshed.
Answer:B

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NO.2 You want to compare the sales revenue performance of the top 20% of your customers to the average
of all of your customers. You decide to apply a rank on the table that shows customers and revenue and
create a variable to show the average revenue for all customers. Which function should you use in the
variable?
A.NoFilter()
B.NoRank()
C.AverageAll()
D.IgnoreFilter()
Answer:A

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NO.3 Which two functions can you use to concatenate the strings "England" and "New" to create the string
"New England"? (Choose two.)
A.Left()
B.LeftPad()
C.LeftTrim()
D.Concatenate()
Answer:B D

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NO.4 You are working with a set of store revenues. All stores have positive revenue values. Which formula
should you use to display the variance value of the Revenue measure in your document when data
tracking is active?
A.=[Revenue]/RefValue([Revenue])
B.=[Revenue]/PreValue([Revenue])
C.=[Revenue]/HistValue([Revenue])
D.=[Revenue]/BaseValue([Revenue])
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which DaysBetween() function syntax should you use to calculate the number of years since your birth,
assuming the date object is Birth_date?
A.=DaysBetween([Birth_date] ; CurrentDate ) / 365.25
B.=DaysBetween([Birth_date] , CurrentDate() ) / 365.25
C.=DaysBetween([Birth_date] ; CurrentDate() ) / 365.25
D.=DaysBetween(CurrentDate() ; [Birth_date] ) / 365.25
Answer:C

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NO.6 You are using calculation contexts within an If() function. Which two are valid contexts for use in an If()
function? (Choose two.)
A.In Cell
B.In Row
C.In Block
D.In Report
Answer:C D

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NO.7 Which two statements are true of the Web Intelligence default behavior when performing a UNION
combined query method? (Choose two.)
A.It performs a UNION.
B.It performs a UNION ALL.
C.It returns all values less the duplicates.
D.It returns all values including the duplicates.
Answer:A C

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NO.8 Which two statements are true of grouping sets when using smart measures? (Choose two.)
A.It is a set of dimensions that generates a result for a measure.
B.It is a set of measures that generates a result for a dimension.
C.The generated SQL includes grouping sets for all the aggregations of that dimension that are included
in the report.
D.The generated SQL includes grouping sets for all the aggregations of that measure that are included in
the report.
Answer:A D

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NO.9 Where in Web Intelligence Rich Client interface can you see the data source for a document built on a
local data source?
A.Global Settings
B.Report Settings
C.Query Properties
D.Document Properties
Answer:C

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NO.10 You open a Web Intelligence document (WID) with data and want to use data tracking. The Data
Tracking button is however grayed out. Which action should you take to enable formatting of the tracked
data?
A.Contact the system administrator.
B.Edit the document in tracking mode.
C.Open the document in tracking mode.
D.Enable data tracking in the Document Properties.
Answer:A

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Exam Code: DMDI301
Exam Name: Business-Objects (BUSINESS OBJECTS Data Integrator XI – Level Two)
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Total Q&A: 33 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 You create a data flow that contains an XML file as the output. The XML file structure contains an
element that is used to group other element.
This element occurs once in the output XML file. Which method can you use to ensure that this element is
populated correctly?
A. Enter the value"1" in the single element schema mapping.
B. Leave the form clause of the single element schema empty.
C. Place the source table that contains your source rows into the form clause of the single element
schema.
D. Use a row_Generation transform and select one row then map the transform into the from clause of the
single element schema.
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are working in a multi-user central repository based environment. You select "Rename owner" on
an object which is not checked out.
The object has one or more dependent objects in the local repository. What is the outcome?
A. Data integrator displays a second window listing the dependent objects. when you click "continue" the
object owner is renamed and all of the dependent objects are modified.
B. Data Integrator renames the indiviclual object owner.
C. Data Integrator displays the "This object is checked out from central repository "X". Please select Tools
Central Repository. to activate that repository before renaming.Message.
D. Data Integrator renames the owner of all 0bjects within the selected data store.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your data flow loads the contents of "order_details "and" order_headers "into one XML file that contains
a node <HEADER> and a child mode <DETAIL>.
How should you populate the structure in your Query.?
A. In the HEADER schema use the order headers for from and leave where empty in the detail schema
use the order details for From and Where clause put order_header_id =order_details order_id.
B. In the HEADER schema use the order_headers for from and put order_header.order_id = order
details.order_id in where clause. In the detail schema use the order_details for from andleave where
empty.
C. In the header schema use the order_header for from and leave where empty in the detail schema use
the order_header for from and put order_header order_id = order_details order_id in where clause.
D. In the header schema use the order_headers for from, and in where clause put order_header order_id
= order details order_id in the detail schema use the order_header, order_details for from and leave
where empty.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You create a real-time job that processes data from an external application. Which two mechanisms
enable the external application to send/receive messages to the real-time job? (Choose two).
A. Adapter instance
B. File on shared server
C. E-mail
D. Web service call
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Data integrator conations "Execute only once" logic on which two objects ?(Choose two)
A. Conditionals
B. Data flows
C. Scripts
D. Work flows
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: 050-V37-ENVCSE01
Exam Name: RSA (CSE RSA enVision Essentials (new update))
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Total Q&A: 97 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which RSA enVision module is used to configure the enVision system as well as to monitor its health
and performance? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Overview module
B.Alerts Module
C.Analysis Module
D.Reports Module
Answer:A

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NO.2 In the RSA enVision UDS process, what is the purpose of performing Data Reduction steps? (Check the
one best answer.)
A.Improve speed and efficiency of data processing
B.Compress unsupported device data prior to storage
C.Apply ISO-approved abbreviations to message text strings
D.Decrease the rate that unsupported device data is collected
Answer:A

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NO.3 When initially setting up a multiple appliance site, only the D-SRV unit is connected to a LAN ?all of the
other units in the site then connect directly to the D-SRV.
A.True
B.False
Answer:B

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NO.4 After creating a customized Report Menu system, which RSA enVision service(s) need to be re-started?
A.Only the NIC Webserver Service
B.The NIC Webserver and NIC Server Services
C.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server and NIC Locator Services
D.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server, NIC Locator, and NIC Packager Services
Answer:A

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NO.5 If a customer has a specific syslog that they would like to use as part of a demonstration, you can load it
into enVision for reporting and querying using which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.The lsdata utility to import the syslog file
B.Copying the syslog file into the IPDB data directory
C.Using the Data Injector utility to collect data from the syslog file
D.Using the Custom Reports ?View External Data function of the administrative GUI
Answer:C

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NO.6 What are three steps that are part of the device interpretation process using UDS? (Check the three
best answers.)
A.Configure devices to send log data to RSA enVision
B.Device identification (i.e. vendor, device name, class, sub-class, etc.)
C.Identification of device collection method
D.Message definition
E.List of known vulnerabilities
F.Data parsing
Answer:B D F

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NO.7 What two tasks does UDS complete when the command "uds reate" is executed to create a device?
(Check the two best answers.)
A.Creates the files .ini, client.txt, vendor.txt and msg.xml
B.Immediately starts collecting data from the new device
C.Identifies all associated devices that have been configured
D.Create all directory structures required for the device
E.Lists all devices to verify that the device does not already exist
Answer:A D

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NO.8 True or false. If a conflict exists with the default enVision collection port after appliance installation, the
Collector Service can be modified to configure event collection on a different port.
A.True
B.false
Answer:A

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NO.9 How many Remote Collectors (RC) can each Database Server (D-SRV) support? (Check the one best
answer.)
A.Eight (8)
B.Ten (10)
C.Sixteen (16)
D.Thirty two (32)
Answer:C

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NO.10 When setting up a Check Point firewall device, which of the following is a good practice that should be
completed first? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Stop and restart the Check Point Firewall Service
B.Stop and restart the enVision NIC Collector Service
C.Verify that the Check Point Log Viewer is receiving events
D.Set an 8-character key to establish an authenticated connection
Answer:C

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NO.11 When would you expect a difference between the log information captured by RSA enVision and the
log information generated by a device? (Check the one best answer.)
A.When the source IP address of the device is unknown to enVision.
B.When the device is configured to send only certain events to syslog.
C.When "Collect All Logs" is left unchecked in the Manage Devices screen.
D.When the device is a known device and enVision recognizes the events to be non-critical.
Answer:B

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NO.12 What happens if an event source device type is not immediately recognized by RSA enVision? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It will be defined as "unknown" and for a limited time enVision will collect event data it generates
B.Data from that device will be discarded until the device type can be defined
C.An alert is generated by default to call an administrator's attention to the device
D.The UDS Service will create a parsing XML file for the device and place data in the NIC Parse Cache
Answer:A

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NO.13 When opening a connection in Event Explorer, you can define which of the following features? (Check
the three correct answers.)
A.Devices
B.Event categories
C.Log messages
D.Time frame
E.Local collector
Answer:A B D

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NO.14 In RSA enVision UDS development, Value Maps, Regular Expressions, and Functions are types of
which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Data Reduction
B.XML Parsing Rules
C.Conditional Variables
D.Summary Data Buckets
Answer:C

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NO.15 The administrator can use the RSA enVision's user authentication feature to complete what tasks?
(Check two answers.)
A.Use an existing Microsoft Active Directory authentication server
B.Associate administrative users with an authentication server
C.Require enVision users to change passwords on a periodic basis
D.Enforce a pre-defined set of 'prohibited passwords' based on a dictionary file
E.Utilize existing domain authenticated user accounts as the basis for enVision user accounts
Answer:A E

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NO.16 What does RSA enVision do when it is set to auto-discover new devices? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Adds new supported devices automatically to the list of monitored devices in the Manage Monitored
Devices screen
B.Temporarily holds in the "New Device" cache and begins to collect data after it is approved by an
administrator
C.RSA enVision alerts members of the "administrators" group to add a new device to the list of monitored
devices
D.RSA enVision automatically exports device attributes to an XML file for an administrator to review
Answer:A

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NO.17 When planning an RSA enVision installation, which statements below about the Site Name are
important considerations? (Check two answers.)
A.The Site Name must match an enVision domain name
B.The Site Name must be unique within an enVision domain and cannot be the same as the customer's
NetBIOS domain name
C.The Site Name must not contain any numeric or punctuation characters
D.The Site Name must have the same suffix as the Windows domain in which it resides
E.The Site Name must not match the name of any existing Windows domain in the network
Answer:B E

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NO.18 The UDS development process involves which of the following tasks? (Check two answers.)
A.Verifying XML syntax and parsing
B.Using XML to convert device logs to IPDB format
C.Mapping a device name to an existing enVision device
D.Creating an XML file to define header and message information
Answer:A D

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NO.19 Why would the checkbox of a device type be grayed out On the Manage Device Types screen? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It's not licensed
B.Device is unknown but data can be collected
C.Device is known but not compatible with enVision
D.Device is associated with a monitored device within the NIC domain
Answer:D

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NO.20 When creating a new enVision user account, which User Group is the account added to by default?
(Check the one best answer.)
A.Report-users
B.Administrators
C.Temporary-users
D.All-applications-users
Answer:D

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Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of DLP Network Sensors, Interceptors, and ICAP
Servers that can be managed by one DLP Network Controller?
A. 25
B. 50
C. 100
D. It depends on the license that has been purchased.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following endpoint actions can be detected, audited or blocked by the
DLP Endpoint Enforcement Agent? (Choose two)
A. Screen capture
B. Printing to a file
C. Bluetooth File transfer
D. Copying to a floppy disk or hard drive
E. Copying a file from one network share to another network share
Answer: B, D

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NO.3 Automatic remediation actions can be configured in policy DLP Datacenter
policies in DLP release 7.0 and later releases.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following statements are true about DLP policies? (Choose two)
A. Existing policies may be reordered.
B. Existing policies cannot be changed. They must be deleted and new policies
created to replace them.
C. The DLP administrator cannot create new policies; new polices must be
purchased from RSA .
D. Datacenter policies can be changed without ever losing the incremental scan
results and requiring a full scan.
E. Network, Datacenter, or Endpoint sections of a policy can be individually
disabled or enabled without affecting the other sections.
Answer: A, E

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NO.5 Which of the following requirements must be met to successfully run the DLP 7.0
Enterprise Manager installation program?
A. Minimum 2 gigabytes of available ram
B. Minimum 10 gigabytes of available space
C. Minimum Processor Speed of 1.950 GHZ
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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Exam Code: CISA
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NO.1 The use of a GANTT chart can:
A. aid in scheduling project tasks.
B. determine project checkpoints.
C. ensure documentation standards.
D. direct the post-implementation review.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A GANTT chart is used in project control. It may aid in the identification of needed checkpoints but its
primary use is in scheduling. It will not ensure the completion of documentation nor will it provide direction
for the post-implementation review.

NO.2 In an EDI process, the device which transmits and receives electronic documents is the:
A. communications handler.
B. EDI translator.
C. application interface.
D. EDI interface.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A communications handler transmits and receives electronic documents between trading partners
and/or wide area networks (WANs).
Incorrect answers:
B. An EDI translator translates data between the standard format and a trading partner's proprietary
format.
C. An application interface moves electronic transactions to, or from, the application system and performs
data mapping.
D. An EDI interface manipulates and routes data between the application system and the communications
handler.

NO.3 Which of the following would be the BEST method for ensuring that critical fields in a master record
have been updated properly?
A. Field checks
B. Control totals
C. Reasonableness checks
D. A before-and-after maintenance report
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A before-and-after maintenance report is the best answer because a visual review would provide the most
positive verification that updating was proper.

NO.4 Which of the following is MOST likely to result from a business process reengineering (BPR) project?
A. An increased number of people using technology
B. Significant cost savings, through a reduction in the complexity of information technology
C. A weaker organizational structures and less accountability
D. Increased information protection (IP) risk will increase
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A BPR project more often leads to an increased number of people using technology, and this would be a
cause for concern. Incorrect answers:
B. As BPR is often technology oriented, and this technology is usually more complex and volatile than in
the past, cost savings do not often materialize in this area.
D. There is no reason for IP to conflict with a BPR project, unless the project is not run properly.

NO.5 Which of the following BEST describes the necessary documentation for an enterprise product
reengineering (EPR) software installation?
A. Specific developments only
B. Business requirements only
C. All phases of the installation must be documented
D. No need to develop a customer specific documentation
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A global enterprise product reengineering (EPR) software package can be applied to a business to
replace, simplify and improve the quality of IS processing. Documentation is intended to help understand
how, why and which solutions that have been selected and implemented, and therefore must be specific
to the project. Documentation is also intended to support quality assurance and must be comprehensive.

NO.6 Which of the following data validation edits is effective in detecting transposition and transcription
errors?
A. Range check
B. Check digit
C. Validity check
D. Duplicate check
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A check digit is a numeric value that is calculated mathematically and is appended to data to
ensure that the original data have not been altered or an incorrect, but valid, value substituted.
This control is effective in detecting transposition and transcription errors.
Incorrect answers:
A. A range check is checking data that matches a predetermined range of values.
C. A validity check is programmed checking of the data validity in accordance with predetermined criteria.
D. In a duplicate check, new or fresh transactions are matched to those previously entered to ensure that
they are not already in the system.

NO.7 Which of the following devices extends the network and has the capacity to store frames and act as a
storage and forward device?
A. Router
B. Bridge
C. Repeater
D. Gateway
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A bridge connects two separate networks to form a logical network (e.g., joining an ethernet and token
network) and has the storage capacity to store frames and act as a storage and forward device. Bridges
operate at the OSI data link layer by examining the media access control header of a data packet.
Incorrect answers:
A. Routers are switching devices that operate at the OSI network layer by examining network addresses
(i.e., routing information encoded in an IP packet). The router, by examining the IP address, can make
intelligent decisions in directing the packet to its destination.
C. Repeaters amplify transmission signals to reach remote devices by taking a signal from a LAN,
reconditioning and retiming it, and sending it to another. This functionality is hardware encoded and
occurs at the OSI physical layer.
D. Gateways provide access paths to foreign networks.

NO.8 A number of system failures are occurring when corrections to previously detected errors are
resubmitted for acceptance testing. This would indicate that the maintenance team is probably not
adequately performing which of the following types of testing?
A. Unit testing
B. Integration testing
C. Design walk-throughs
D. Configuration management
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A common system maintenance problem is that errors are often corrected quickly (especially when
deadlines are tight) , units are tested by the programmer, and then transferred to the acceptance test area.
This often results in system problems that should have been detected during integration or system testing.
Integration testing aims at ensuring that the major components of the system interface correctly.

NO.9 Which of the following translates e-mail formats from one network to another so that the message can
travel through all the networks?
A. Gateway
B. Protocol converter
C. Front-end communication processor
D. Concentrator/multiplexor
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A gateway performs the job of translating e-mail formats from one network to another so messages can
make their way through all the networks.
Incorrect answers:
B. A protocol converter is a hardware device that converts between two different types of transmissions,
such as asynchronous and synchronous transmissions.
C. A front-end communication processor connects all network communication lines to a central computer
to relieve the central computer from performing network control, format conversion and message handling
tasks.
D. A concentrator/multiplexor is a device used for combining several lower-speed channels into a
higher-speed channel.

NO.10 Which of the following tests is an IS auditor performing when a sample of programs is selected to
determine if the source and object versions are the same?
A. A substantive test of program library controls
B. A compliance test of program library controls
C. A compliance test of the program compiler controls
D. A substantive test of the program compiler controls
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A compliance test determines if controls are operating as designed and are being applied in a manner that
complies with management policies and procedures. For example, if the IS auditor is concerned whether
program library controls are working properly, the IS auditor might select a sample of programs to
determine if the source and object versions are the same. In other words, the broad objective of any
compliance test is to provide auditors with reasonable assurance that a particular control on which the
auditor plans to rely is operating as the auditor perceived it in the preliminary evaluation.

NO.11 Which of the following network configuration options contains a direct link between any two host
machines?
A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Star
D. Completely connected (mesh)
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A completely connected mesh configuration creates a direct link between any two host machines.
Incorrect answers:
A. A bus configuration links all stations along one transmission line.
B. A ring configuration forms a circle, and all stations are attached to a point on the transmission circle.
D. In a star configuration each station is linked directly to a main hub.

NO.12 Which of the following hardware devices relieves the central computer from performing network
control, format conversion and message handling tasks?
A. Spool
B. Cluster controller
C. Protocol converter
D. Front end processor
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A front-end processor is a hardware device that connects all communication lines to a central computer to
relieve the central computer.

NO.13 An offsite information processing facility having electrical wiring, air conditioning and flooring, but no
computer or communications equipment is a:
A. cold site.
B. warm site.
C. dial-up site.
D. duplicate processing facility.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A cold site is ready to receive equipment but does not offer any components at the site in advance of the
need.
Incorrect answers:
B. A warm site is an offsite backup facility that is configured partially with network connections and
selected peripheral equipment, such as disk and tape units, controllers and CPUs, to operate an
information processing facility.
D. A duplicate information processing facility is a dedicated, self-developed recovery site that can back up
critical applications.

NO.14 Which of the following is a benefit of using callback devices?
A. Provide an audit trail
B. Can be used in a switchboard environment
C. Permit unlimited user mobility
D. Allow call forwarding
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A callback feature hooks into the access control software and logs all authorized and unauthorized access
attempts, permitting the follow-up and further review of potential breaches. Call forwarding (choice D) is a
means of potentially bypassing callback control. By dialing through an authorized phone number from an
unauthorized phone number, a perpetrator can gain computer access. This vulnerability can be controlled
through callback systems that are available.

NO.15 A database administrator is responsible for:
A. defining data ownership.
B. establishing operational standards for the data dictionary.
C. creating the logical and physical database.
D. establishing ground rules for ensuring data integrity and security.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A database administrator is responsible for creating and controlling the logical and physical database.
Defining data ownership resides with the head of the user department or top management if the data is
common to the organization. IS management and the data administrator are responsible for establishing
operational standards for the data dictionary. Establishing ground rules for ensuring data integrity and
security in line with the corporate security policy is a function of the security administrator.

NO.16 Which of the following is a dynamic analysis tool for the purpose of testing software modules?
A. Blackbox test
B. Desk checking
C. Structured walk-through
D. Design and code
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A blackbox test is a dynamic analysis tool for testing software modules. During the testing of software
modules a blackbox test works first in a cohesive manner as one single unit/entity, consisting of numerous
modules and second, with the user data that flows across software modules. In some cases, this even
drives the software behavior.
Incorrect answers:
In choices B, C and D, the software (design or code) remains static and somebody simply closely
examines it by applying his/her mind, without actually activating the software. Hence, these cannot be
referred to as dynamic analysis tools.

NO.17 Which of the following systems-based approaches would a financial processing company employ to
monitor spending patterns to identify abnormal patterns and report them?
A. A neural network
B. Database management software
C. Management information systems
D. Computer assisted audit techniques
Answer: A Explanation:
A neural network will monitor and learn patterns, reporting exceptions for investigation. Incorrect answers:
B. Database management software is a method of storing and retrieving data.
C. Management information systems provide management statistics but do not normally have a
monitoring and detection function.
D. Computer-assisted audit techniques detect specific situations, but are not intended to learn patterns
and detect abnormalities.

NO.18 A call-back system requires that a user with an id and password call a remote server through a dial-up
line, then the server disconnects and: A. dials back to the user machine based on the user id and
password using a telephone number from its database.
B. dials back to the user machine based on the user id and password using a telephone number provided
by the user during this connection.
C. waits for a redial back from the user machine for reconfirmation and then verifies the user id and
password using its database.
D. waits for a redial back from the user machine for reconfirmation and then verifies the user id and
password using the sender's database.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A call-back system in a net centric environment would mean that a user with an id and password calls a
remote server through a dial-up line first, and then the server disconnects and dials back to the user
machine based on the user id and password using a telephone number from its database. Although the
server can depend upon its own database, it cannot know the authenticity of the dialer when the user dials
again. The server cannot depend upon the sender's database to dial back as the same could be
manipulated.

NO.19 A LAN administrator normally would be restricted from:
A. having end-user responsibilities.
B. reporting to the end-user manager.
C. having programming responsibilities.
D. being responsible for LAN security administration.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A LAN administrator should not have programming responsibilities but may have end- user
responsibilities. The LAN administrator may report to the director of the IPF or, in a decentralized
operation, to the end-user manager. In small organizations, the LAN administrator also may be
responsible for security administration over the LAN.

NO.20 Which of the following types of data validation editing checks is used to determine if a field contains
data, and not zeros or blanks?
A. Check digit
B. Existence check
C. Completeness check
D. Reasonableness check
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A completeness check is used to determine if a field contains data and not zeros or blanks. Incorrect
answers:
A. A check digit is a digit calculated mathematically to ensure original data was not altered.
B. An existence check also checks entered data for agreement to predetermined criteria.
D. A reasonableness check matches input to predetermined reasonable limits or occurrence rates.

NO.21 A critical function of a firewall is to act as a:
A. special router that connects the Internet to a LAN.
B. device for preventing authorized users from accessing the LAN.
C. server used to connect authorized users to private trusted network resources.
D. proxy server to increase the speed of access to authorized users.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A firewall is a set of related programs, located at a network gateway server, that protects the resources of
a private network from users of other networks. An enterprise with an intranet that allows its workers
access to the wider Internet installs a firewall to prevent outsiders from accessing its own private data
resources and for controlling the outside resources to which its own users have access. Basically, a
firewall, working closely with a router program, filters all network packets to determine whether or not to
forward them toward their destination. A firewall includes or works with a proxy server that makes network
requests on behalf of workstation users. A firewall is often installed in a specially designated computer
separate from the rest of the network so no incoming request can get directed to private network
resources.

NO.22 An IS auditor reviewing the key roles and responsibilities of the database administrator (DBA) is
LEAST likely to expect the job description of the DBA to include:
A. defining the conceptual schema.
B. defining security and integrity checks.
C. liaising with users in developing data model.
D. mapping data model with the internal schema.
Answer: D Explanation:
A DBA only in rare instances should be mapping data elements from the data model to the internal
schema (physical data storage definitions). To do so would eliminate data independence for application
systems. Mapping of the data model occurs with the conceptual schema since the conceptual schema
represents the enterprisewide view of data within an organization and is the basis for deriving an end-user
department data model.

NO.23 A sequence of bits appended to a digital document that is used to secure an e-mail sent through the
Internet is called a:
A. digest signature.
B. electronic signature.
C. digital signature.
D. hash signature.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A digital signature through the private cryptographic key authenticates a transmission from a sender
through the private cryptographic key. It is a string of bits that uniquely represent another string of bits, a
digital document. An electronic signature refers to the string of bits that digitally represents a handwritten
signature captured by a computer system when a human applies it on an electronic pen pad, connected
to the system.

NO.24 Structured programming is BEST described as a technique that:
A. provides knowledge of program functions to other programmers via peer reviews.
B. reduces the maintenance time of programs by the use of small-scale program modules.
C. makes the readable coding reflect as closely as possible the dynamic execution of the program.
D. controls the coding and testing of the high-level functions of the program in the development process.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A characteristic of structured programming is smaller, workable units. Structured programming has
evolved because smaller, workable units are easier to maintain. Structured programming is a style of
programming which restricts the kinds of control structures. This limitation is not crippling. Any program
can be written with allowed control structures. Structured programming is sometimes referred to as
go-to-less programming, since a go-to statement is not allowed. This is perhaps the most well known
restriction of the style, since go-to statements were common at the time structured programming was
becoming more popular. Statement labels also become unnecessary, except in languages where
subroutines are identified by labels.

NO.25 IS management has decided to rewrite a legacy customer relations system using fourth generation
languages (4GLs). Which of the following risks is MOST often associated with system development using
4GLs?
A. Inadequate screen/report design facilities
B. Complex programming language subsets
C. Lack of portability across operating systems
D. Inability to perform data intensive operations
Answer: D

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Explanation:
4.Ls are usually not suitable for data intensive operations. Instead, they are used mainly for graphic user
interface (GUI) design or as simple query/report generators.
Incorrect answers:
A, B. Screen/report design facilities are one of the main advantages of 4GLs, and 4GLs have simple
programming language subsets.
C. Portability is also one of the main advantages of 4GLs.

NO.26 A hub is a device that connects:
A. two LANs using different protocols.
B. a LAN with a WAN.
C. a LAN with a metropolitan area network (MAN).
D. two segments of a single LAN.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A hub is a device that connects two segments of a single LAN. A hub is a repeater. It provides transparent
connectivity to users on all segments of the same LAN. It is a level 1 device. Incorrect answers:
A. A bridge operates at level 2 of the OSI layer and is used to connect two LANs using different protocols
(e.g., joining an ethernet and token network) to form a logical network.
B. A gateway, which is a level 7 device, is used to connect a LAN to a WAN.
C. A LAN is connected with a MAN using a router, which operates in the network layer.

NO.27 To affix a digital signature to a message, the sender must first create a message digest by applying a
cryptographic hashing algorithm against:
A. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message digest using the sender's private key.
B. any arbitrary part of the message and thereafter enciphering the message digest using the sender's
private key.
C. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message using the sender's private key.
D. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message along with the message digest using the
sender's private key.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A digital signature is a cryptographic method that ensures data integrity, authentication of the message,
and non-repudiation. To ensure these, the sender first creates a message digest by applying a
cryptographic hashing algorithm against the entire message and thereafter enciphers the message digest
using the sender's private key. A message digest is created by applying a cryptographic hashing algorithm
against the entire message not on any arbitrary part of the message. After creating the message digest,
only the message digest is enciphered using the sender's private key, not the message.

NO.28 Which of the following is a telecommunication device that translates data from digital form to analog
form and back to digital?
A. Multiplexer
B. Modem
C. Protocol converter
D. Concentrator
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A modem is a device that translates data from digital to analog and back to digital.

NO.29 A data administrator is responsible for: A. maintaining database system software.
B. defining data elements, data names and their relationship.
C. developing physical database structures.
D. developing data dictionary system software.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A data administrator is responsible for defining data elements, data names and their relationship. Choices
A, C and D are functions of a database administrator (DBA)

NO.30 The MOST significant level of effort for business continuity planning (BCP) generally is required during
the:
A. testing stage.
B. evaluation stage.
C. maintenance stage.
D. early stages of planning.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Company.com in the early stages of a BCP will incur the most significant level of program development
effort, which will level out as the BCP moves into maintenance, testing and evaluation stages. It is during
the planning stage that an IS auditor will play an important role in obtaining senior management's
commitment to resources and assignment of BCP responsibilities.

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NO.1 You are the firewall administrator at your company and the network administrators have
decided to implement a VPN solution that will use L2TP. Which port or ports would you
need to allow through the firewall to allow the L2TP traffic to reach the VPN server
inside your network from a remote client?
A. TCP 1723
B. UDP 47
C. UDP 1701
D. TCP 443
E. UDP 500
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following best describes the Total Replacement Model?
A. The total replacement model makes use of the acknowledged skills and abilities of the existing
personnel. Knowing that assets
have very specific dollar values assigned to them, the choice on how to manage the asset is based on the
experience of the
personnel.
B. Before incurring the cost for replacing of an inoperative asset, check for maintenance agreements that
may include the cost of
repair or the actual repair itself. Nevertheless, the total replacement model should focus on the repairing
of
the downed asset to its
working status within the network infrastructure. Keep in mind that after hardware costs, costs for the
reloading or replacement of
software can be a large cost factor as well.
C. Assets will typically cost much more than the original capital outlay that it took to purchase it long ago.
Replacement costs can be
very high and a decision to exercise this model should not be made in haste. There are also depreciation
issues to deal with as well.
In any case, this model should be the last resort because of cost and may be the most time consuming.
D. The total replacement model is the transference of risk to an insurance company that covers the costs
of
replacing the critical
assets within your network. The drawbacks are increase in premiums after making a claim, high
premiums
anyway, down time
while the insurance company is processing the claim, and claim may not pay what replacement costs are
today.
E. The total replacement model makes use of preventive measures and regular service as well as
updates
such as Service Packs,
maintenance updates, and patches, before deciding to replace the asset. Preventive measures can also
improve the chances of the
replacement model working better than if the system had no preventive measures ever taken.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following best describes the Insurance Model?
A. Before incurring the cost for insuring an inoperative asset, check for maintenance agreements that may
include the cost of
insurance itself.
B. The insurance model is the transference of risk to an insurance company that covers the costs of
replacing the critical assets within
your network. The drawbacks are increase in premiums after making a claim, high premiums anyway,
down time while the
insurance company is processing the claim, and claim may not pay what replacement costs are today.
C. The insurance model makes use of preventive measures and regular service as well as updates such
as
Service Packs, maintenance
updates, and patches. Preventive measures can also improve the chances of the insurance model
working
better than if the system
had no preventive measures ever taken.
D. The insurance model makes use of the acknowledged skills and abilities of the existing personnel.
Knowing that assets have very
specific dollar values assigned to them, the choice on how to manage the asset is based on the
experience
of the personnel.
E. Assets will typically cost much more than the original capital outlay that it took to purchase it long ago.
Insurance costs can be
very high and a decision to exercise this model should not be made in haste. There are also depreciation
issues to deal with as well.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following best describes the Repair Model?
A. The model makes use of preventive measures and regular service as well as updates such as Service
Packs, maintenance updates,
and patches. Preventive measures can also improve the chances of the repair model working better than
if
the system had no
preventive measures ever taken.
B. The repair model is the transference of risk to an insurance company that covers the costs of replacing
the critical assets within
your network. The drawbacks are increase in premiums after making a claim, high premiums anyway,
down time while the
insurance company is processing the claim, and claim may not pay what replacement costs are today.
C. Assets will typically cost much more than the original capital outlay that it took to purchase it long ago.
Repair costs can be very
high and a decision to exercise this model should not be made in haste. There are also depreciation
issues
to deal with as well. In
any case, this model should be the last resort because of cost and may be the most time consuming.
D. The repair model makes use of the acknowledged skills and abilities of the existing personnel.
Knowing that assets have very
specific dollar values assigned to them, the choice on how to manage the asset is based on the
experience
of the personnel.
E. Before incurring the cost for repair of an inoperative asset, check for maintenance agreements that
may
include the cost of repair
or the actual repair itself. Nevertheless, the repair model should focus on the restoration of the downed
asset to its working status
within the network infrastructure. Keep in mind that after hardware costs, costs for the reloading or
replacement of software can
be a large cost factor as well.
Answer: E

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NO.5 During a discussion of asset classification and protection with a coworker, you realize that your
coworker does not know the basic concepts of asset protection. You are asked to describe the types of
asset protection. Which of the following describes the concept of an infeasible protection of an asset?
A. The cost to protect the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset
B. The cost to replace the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset
C. the cost to protect the asset is infeasible to determine
D. The cost to replace the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset
E. The cost to protect the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset
Answer: A

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NO.6 Your company has decided to allow certain people to work from home. The work that
they do, does not require that they be in the office for anything more than meetings. In
addition, they already have high-speed DSL connections at their homes for personal use.
You have been given the task of figuring out how to get your coworkers to connect to
your company's network securely and reliably. What technology can you use to solve
your problem most effectively?
A. Dedicated Leased Lines (ISDN or T1)
B. Dial-Up via PSTN lines.
C. VPN
D. IPChains
E. IDS
Answer: C

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NO.7 The main reason you have been hired at a company is to bring the network security of the
organization up to current standards. A high priority is to have a full security audit of the network
as soon as possible. You have chosen an Operational Audit and are describing it to your coworkers.
Which of the following best describes an Operational audit?
A. This type of audit is typically done by a contracted external team of security experts who check for
policy compliance.
B. This type of audit is usually done by internal resources to examine the current daily and on-going
activities within a network
system for compliance with an established security policy.
C. This type of audit is typically done by an internal team who ensures the security measures are up to
international standards.
D. This type of audit is usually done by the current network administrators who ensure the security
measures are up to international
standards.
E. This type of audit is usually conducted by external resources and may be a review or audit of detailed
audit logs.
Answer: B

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NO.8 The main reason you have been hired at a company is to bring the network security of the
organization up to current standards. A high priority is to have a full security audit of the network
as soon as possible. You have chosen an Independent Audit and are describing it to your coworkers.
Which of the following best describes an Independent Audit?
A. An independent audit is usually conducted by external or outside resources and may be a review or
audit of detailed audit logs.
B. The independent audit is usually done by the current network administrators who ensure the security
measures are up to
international standards.
C. The independent audit is typically done by an internal team who ensures the security measures are up
to
international standards.
D. The independent audit is usually done by internal resources to examine the current daily and on-going
activities within a network
system for compliance with an established security policy.
E. The independent audit is typically done by a contracted outside team of security experts who check for
policy compliance.
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are considering adding layers to your existing authentication system. Reading through some of
the vendor literature on logon solutions, it frequently mentions two and three factor authentication.
Your assistant asks you to describe the difference between the two. Select the options that correctly
describe two-factor and three-factor authentication:
A. Two-factor authentication is the process providing something you have along with something you
know.
B. Two-factor authentication is the process of providing two forms of authentication, such as a username
and a password.
C. Two-factor authentication is the process of authenticating twice during the login sequence to verify user
identity.
D. Three-factor authentication is the process of providing something you have along with something you
know and something you are.
E. Three-factor authentication is the process of providing three forms of authentication, such as
username,
password, and sitting at
the physical machine to login.
F. Three-factor authentication is the process of authenticating three times during the login sequence to
verify user identity.
Answer: AD

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NO.10 During a discussion of asset classification and protection with a coworker, you realize that your
coworker does not know the basic concepts of asset protection. You are asked to describe the types of
asset protection. Which of the following describes the concept of feasible protection of an asset?
A. The cost to replace the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset
B. The cost to replace the asset is less than the cost of protect the asset
C. The cost to protect the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset.
D. The cost to replace the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset
E. The cost to protect the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset.
Answer: E

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NO.11 What technology is being employed to resist SYN floods by having each side of the connection
attempt create its own sequence number (This sequence number contains a synopsis of the
connection so that if/when the connection attempt is finalized the fist part of the attempt can be
re-created from the sequence number)?
A. SYN cookie
B. SYN floodgate
C. SYN gate
D. SYN damn
E. SYN flood break
Answer: A

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NO.12 You have been hired at a large company to manage the network security issues. Prior to your
arrival, there was no one dedicated to security, so you are starting at the beginning. You hold a
meeting and are discussing the main functions and features of network security. One of your
assistants asks what the function of Authentication in network security is. Which of the following
best describes Authentication?
A. Data communications as well as emails need to be protected for privacy and Authentication.
Authentication ensures the privacy of
data on the network system.
B. Authentication is a security principle that ensures the continuous accuracy of data and information
stored within network systems.
Upon receiving the email or data communication, authentication must be verified to ensure that the
message has not been altered,
modified, or added to or subtracted from in transit by unauthorized users.
C. The security must limit user privileges to minimize the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive
information and areas of the
network that only authorized users should only be allowed to access.
D. Security must be established to prevent parties in a data transaction from denying their participation
after the business transaction
has occurred. This establishes authentication for the transaction itself for all parties involved in the
transaction.
E. Authentication verifies users to be who they say they are. In data communications, authenticating the
sender is necessary to verify
that the data came from the right source. The receiver is authenticated as well to verify that the data is
going to the right
destination.
Answer: E

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NO.13 You were recently hired as the security administrator of a small business. You are
reviewing the current state of security in the network and find that the current logging
system must be immediately modified. As the system is currently configured, auditing
has no practical value. Which of the following are the reasons that the current auditing
has little value?
A. The logs go unchecked.
B. The logs are automatically deleted after three months.
C. The logs are deleted using FIFO and capped at 500Kb.
D. The only auditing is successful file access events.
E. The logs are deleted using FIFO and capped at 5000Kb.
Answer: AD

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NO.14 You have been hired at a large company to manage network. Prior to your arrival, there
was no one dedicated to security, so you are starting at the beginning. You hold a
meeting and are discussing the main functions and features of network security. One of
your assistants asks what the function of Integrity in network security is. Which of the
following best describes Integrity?
A. The security must limit user privileges to minimize the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive
information and areas of the
network that only authorized users should only be allowed to access.
B. Integrity verifies users to be who they say they are. In data communications, the integrity of the sender
is necessary to verify that
the data came from the right source. The receiver is authenticated as well to verify that the data is going
to
the right destination.
C. Data communications as well as emails need to be protected for privacy and Integrity. Integrity ensures
the privacy of data on the
network system.
D. Integrity is a security principle that ensures the continuous accuracy of data and information stored
within network systems. Data
must be kept from unauthorized modification, forgery, or any other form of corruption either from
malicious threats or corruption
that is accidental in nature. Upon receiving the email or data communication, integrity must be verified to
ensure that the message
has not been altered, modified, or added to or subtracted from in transit by unauthorized users.
E. Security must be established to prevent parties in a data transaction from denying their participation
after the business transaction
has occurred. This establishes integrity for the transaction itself for all parties involved in the transaction.
Answer: D

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NO.15 You have been hired at a large company to manage network security. Prior to your arrival, there
was no one dedicated to security, so you are starting at the beginning. You hold a meeting and are
discussing the main functions and features of network security. One of your assistants asks what the
function of Confidentiality in network security is. Which of the following best describes
Confidentiality?
A. Confidentiality verifies users to be who they say they are. In data communications, authenticating the
sender is necessary to verify
that the data came from the right source. The receiver is authenticated as well to verify that the data is
going to the right
destination.
B. Data communications as well as emails need to be protected in order to maintain appropriate levels of
privacy and confidentiality.
Network security must provide a secure channel for the transmission of data and email that does not allow
eavesdropping by
unauthorized users. Data confidentiality ensures the privacy of data on the network system.
C. The security must limit user privileges to minimize the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive
information and areas of the
network that only authorized users should only be allowed to access.
D. Security must be established to prevent parties in a data transaction from denying their participation
after the business transaction
has occurred. This establishes Confidentiality for the transaction itself for all parties involved in the
transaction.
E. Confidentiality is a security principle that ensures the continuous accuracy of data and information
stored within network systems.
Data must be kept from unauthorized modification, forgery, or any other form of corruption either from
malicious threats or
corruption that is accidental in nature.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Your company has decided to allow certain people to work from home. The work that they do does
not require that they be in the office for anything more than meetings and they already have
personal high-speed DSL connections at their homes. You have been given the task of figuring out
how to get your coworkers to connect to your company's network securely and reliably. What
technology can you use to solve your problem most effectively?
A. Dedicated Leased Lines (ISDN or T1)
B. Dial-Up via PSTN lines.
C. VPN
D. Firewall
E. IDS
Answer: C

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NO.17 It has come to your attention that some host on the web has tried to do some reconnaissance on your
network and send a VRFY command to try and steal user names. What type of attack was used
against your network?
A. SMTP attack
B. Web browser attack
C. IMAP attack
D. IP Spoofing
E. Account scan
Answer: A

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NO.18 Signatures are generally divided into what three categories?
A. Corruptions
B. Exploits
C. Accesses
D. DoS attacks
E. Reconnaissance
Answer: BDE

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NO.19 You are the firewall administrator at your company and the network administrators have decided to
implement a PPTP VPN solution, which of these ports would you need to allow through the firewall
to allow these VPN sessions into your network?
A. 1723
B. 2317
C. 1273
D. 1372
E. 7132
Answer: A

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NO.20 You are the firewall administrator for your company and you have just learned that the
Server administrators are gearing up support an L2TP based VPN solution. You are told
to be sure that your firewall rule sets will not hinder the performance of the VPN. Which
of the following ports will you have to allow through the firewall?
A. TCP 1701
B. UDP 1701
C. TCP 443
D. UDP 443
E. TCP1601
Answer: B

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