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Exam Code: HP0-M18
Exam Name: HP (HP LoadRunner Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which Analysis graph details the delay for the complete path between the source and destination
machines?
A. MS IIS
B. Windows Resource
C. Network Delay Time
D. Time to First Buffer Breakdown
Answer: C

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NO.2 Where are the results stored during the run of a scenario?
A. Analysis
B. Controller
C. utility server
D. load generator
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which option in the Analysis tool allows you to compare a measurement in a graph with other
measurements during a specific time range of a scenario and view similar trends?
A. Drill Down
B. Apply Filter
C. Merge Graphs
D. Auto Correlate
Answer: D

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
What does the image shown in the exhibit represent?
A. Thumbnail
B. Extended Log
C. Content Check
D. Snapshot on Error
Answer: D

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NO.5 While analyzing the Vuser log files from a scenario run, you see the following log file from one of the
Vusers.
Start auto log message stack - Iteration 1.
Starting action BookFlight.
BookFlight.c(5): Notify: Transaction WT_00_Home_Page started.
BookFlight.c(7): Error -27796: Failed to connect to server 27.0.0.1:1080 [10061]
End auto log message stack.
What was the Run-time setting, Logging option set to?
A. Standard Logging
B. Extended Logging
C. Always send a message
D. Send a message only when an error occurs
Answer: D

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NO.6 What does the elapsed time in the Scenario Status window refer to?
A. the time that has elapsed from when all Vusers have finished Initializing
B. the time that has elapsed from when all Vusers were in the running state
C. the time that has elapsed from when you press the start Scenario button
D. the time that has elapsed from when the first Vusers entered the running state
Answer: C

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NO.7 When scheduling by scenario, to which group(s) does the defined schedule apply?
A. all groups in the scenario
B. only the first group in the scenario
C. only the selected group in the scenario
D. only the selected group in the scenario scheduler
Answer:A

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NO.8 Which Analysis graph details transaction response times as a function of load?
A. Transactions per Second
B. Average Transaction Response Time
C. Transaction Response Time Under Load
D. Transaction Response Time (distribution)
Answer: C

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NO.9 After the scenario execution, which LoadRunner component is responsible for collecting and
organizing the performance data?
A. VuGen
B. Analysis
C. Controller
D. load generator
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which option in the Analysis tool allows you to see the results of two graphs from the same load test
scenario in a single graph?
A. Drill Down
B. Apply Filter
C. Merge Graphs
D. Auto Correlate
Answer: C

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NO.11 You configure a scenario to start with a delay of <05:00:00> (HH:MM:SS) just before leaving from
work. You return the next morning to find that the scenario did not run. Why would this happen?
A. You failed to save the scenario.
B. You failed to save the schedule.
C. You failed to connect to the load generators.
D. You failed to press the START SCENARIO button.
Answer: D

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NO.12 During analysis of a scenario, you realize that the throughput becomes flat as Vusers continue to
increase. What is the likely cause?
A. a bandwidth problem
B. a database server problem
C. a web server connection problem
D. an application server connection problem
Answer:A

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NO.13 Which Analysis graph shows the number of transactions against transaction response times?
A. Transactions per Second
B. Average Transaction Response Time
C. Transaction Response Time Under Load
D. Transaction Response Time (distribution)
Answer: D

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
Which type of graph does the image in the exhibit represent?
A. Merged graph
B. Drill Down graph
C. Cross Scenario graph
D. Auto Correlated graph
Answer: C

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NO.15 In the Analysis tool, what allows you to modify the scale of the x-axis?
A. think time
B. granularity
C. event type
D. transaction hierarchical path
Answer: B

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NO.16 When you specify to iterate a script 10 times, which sections of the script are iterated?
A. group
B. action
C. vuser_init
D. vuser_end
Answer: B

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NO.17 Where in the Run-time settings can you define to only send messages when an error occurs?
A. General: Log
B. General: Run Logic
C. General: Miscellaneous
D. General: Additional Attributes
Answer:A

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NO.18 When you define a rendezvous point in a scenario, where should the lr_start_transaction function be
placed?
A. at the end of the action section
B. at the beginning of the action section
C. immediately after the rendezvous function
D. immediately before the rendezvous function
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which scenario execution run allows you to verify the system performs as expected under load?
A. Debug
B. Full Load
C. Top Time
D. Scalability
Answer: B

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NO.20 You are running a test and notice that during the ramp up, the response times are beginning to
drastically increase. How can you instruct LoadRunner to stop ramping up Vusers and hold the current
number?
A. press the STOP button on the Controller's main window
B. press the PAUSE button on the Interactive Schedule graph
C. select the option to wait for the current iteration to end before stopping
D. select the Vusers in the Ready state from the Vusers window and click the STOP button
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-J12
Exam Name: HP (Supporting ESL E-Series and EML E-Series Libraries)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 How many cartridge slots can be used in an 8U drive expansion module mounted at the bottom of an
EML E-Series library?
A.48
B.87
C.94
D.103
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are the main considerations when choosing a location for an EML E-Series tape library? (Select
three.)
A.floor space
B.room height
C.power requirements
D.lighting requirements
E.grounding requirements
F.distance to disk storage
Answer: ACE

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NO.3 Which statement about an EML E-Series library is correct?
A.It allows serverless backup with only a few configuration steps if a Secure Manager license is installed.
B.The initial configuration can be done over the front panel, Command View TL or the serial port on the
robotics controller using CLI.
C.It is fully compliant with the Storage Management Initiative Specifications (SMI-S) and can be
configured with HP Storage Essentials.
D.It bridges the capabilities and features between the business-class HP StorageWorks MSL Series and
enterprise-class ESL E-Series tape libraries.
Answer: D

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NO.4 With which management specification does the Command View TL Provider comply?
A.Direct Management Initiative (DMI)
B.Advanced Remote Management (ARM)
C.Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
D.Storage Management Initiative Specification (SMI-S)
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the hard wired IP address of the Interface Manager card in an EML E-Series tape library on the
private network?
A.1.1.1.1
B.10.0.0.1
C.192.168.2.1
D.155.155.155.1
Answer: C

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
What does Number 2 on the exhibit represent?
A.x axis motor
B.y axis motor
C.optical scanner
D.home position sensor
Answer: B

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NO.7 What can be connected using the vacant Ethernet port on the right side of the cabinet controller in an
ESL E-Series tape library?
A.an external LAN
B.cluster controllers
C.interface management card
D.Fibre Channel interface controllers
Answer: A

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
Which ESL E-Series tape library component (used to carry data cartridges to a secondary cabinet) is
shown in the figure?
A.CLM arm
B.CLM controller
C.picker assembly
D.cartridge transfer robot
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is the purpose of the Stop button on the Operator Control Panel of ESL E-Series tape libraries?
A.to halt the robotics
B.to restart the library
C.to shut down the library
D.to pause a running backup process
Answer: A

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NO.10 When is Lock Element Addressing used in the ESL E-Series library?
A.with multiple tape drive clusters
B.as an electronic lock of the access doors
C.when multiple Interface Controllers are used
D.for cross-linked libraries with three or more cabinets
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is the maximum cartridge slot count in an EML E-Series library?
A.325
B.470
C.505
D.595
Answer: C

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NO.12 For which connection, other than the cabinet controller, is the I2C network cable used in ESL E-Series
tape libraries?
A.external LANs
B.cluster controllers
C.interface management cards
D.Fibre Channel interface controllers
Answer: B

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NO.13 What are the standard cabling requirements for the Interface Manager card of an EML E-Series tape
library?
A.4 x Ethernet to interface controllers, 1 x Ethernet to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
B.4 x Ethernet to interface controllers, 1 x Fibre Channel to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
C.4 x Fibre Channel to interface controllers, 1 x Ethernet to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
D.4 x Fibre Channel to interface controllers, 1 x Fibre Channel to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
Answer: A

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which item number represents the host Fibre Channel connections?
A.4
B.6
C.9
D.10
Answer: C

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NO.15 How often is the CommandView TL Health Summary screen updated?
A.every 30 seconds
B.at 15-minute intervals
C.whenever the library status changes
D.configurable to any value up to 900 seconds
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which HP document provides the most current, supported configurations for Enterprise class libraries
in a SAN environment?
A.Service Guide
B.SAN Design Guide
C.EBS Compatibility Matrix
D.training course documentation
Answer: C

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NO.17 What does the cabinet controller assembly of an ESL E-Series tape library provide a SCSI interface
to?
A.tape devices
B.library robotics
C.management interface card
D.e2400-160 Interface Controller
Answer: B

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NO.18 What are advantages of using Secure Manager EML? (Select two.)
A.It allows library partitioning.
B.Management of direct backup is allowed.
C.It provides faster access to tape devices.
D.Device level mapping is easily configured.
E.User access management is easily configured.
Answer: AD

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NO.19 What can you do to speed up the power-on process while troubleshooting an EML 71e library?
A.Remove all media from the library.
B.Power-on the library with the load port door open.
C.Disable the auto audit, remembering to re-enable it and reboot the library before leaving the customer
site.
D.Configure inventory mode to bar code labels not required, remembering to reset bar code labels
required before leaving the customer site.
Answer: C

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NO.20 What is important to remember when changing from Manual to Automatic mode of the Interface
Manager of an ESL E-Series tape library?
A.All drives must be taken offline.
B.Fibre Channel cables must be unplugged.
C.Interface Controllers must be powered off first.
D.Any customizations created in Manual mode will be lost.
Answer: D

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NO.21 What must be configured in CommandView TL when manually adding an ESL E-Series library?
A.library IP address
B.library serial number
C.tape drive and robot SCSI IDs
D.Interface Manager user name and password
Answer: A

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NO.22 Click the Exhibit button.
What is the maximum supported number of drives that can be installed in a CLM configuration?
A.40
B.44
C.60
D.64
Answer: B

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NO.23 Click the Exhibit button.
Which ESL E-Series tape library configuration is shown in the Operator Control Panel Library screen?
A.last cabinet
B.primary cabinet
C.secondary cabinet
D.stand-alone cabinet
Answer: B

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NO.24 What is reported by the LP/PNL sensor of an ESL E-Series tape library?
A.library door status
B.x-axis motor position
C.y-axis motor position
D.magazines and load ports status
Answer: D

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NO.25 Click the Exhibit button.
Which component is connected to port E1 of the cluster controller if it is in drive cluster 0 of an ESL
E-Series tape library?
A.cabinet controller
B.Interface Controller
C.lower cluster controller
D.Interface Manager card
Tape Library
Answer: A

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NO.26 Which scheme is used in the Command Line Interface for drive and slot numbers in ESL E-Series
tape libraries?
A.0 based
B.1 based
C.2 based
D.Hex based
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which parts of the Extended Tape Library Architecture are SNIA compliant and support the Storage
Management Initiative Specifications (SMI-S)? (Select two.)
A.Secure Manager
B.Interface Manager
C.Interface Controller
D.Robotics Controller
E.Command View Tape Library
Answer: BE

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NO.28 Which tape device attribute does the ESL E-Series tape library Interface Manager use to determine
the physical location of each tape drive in the library?
A.bus number
B.SCSI address
C.serial number
D.drive slot position
Answer: C

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NO.29 What are possible causes of inventory failure in ESL E-Series tape libraries? (Select two.)
A.The library has a drive failure.
B.One of the clusters is disconnected.
C.The library front is facing bright sunlight.
D.Unapproved bar code labels are being used.
E.The Interface Controller is disconnected from the Fibre Channel switch.
Answer: CD

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NO.30 Click the Exhibit button.
Which ESL E-Series tape library component does the exhibit display?
A.cluster controller
B.cabinet controller
C.Interface Manager
D.Interface Controller
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-090
Exam Name: HP (HP-UX Virtual Server Environment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 145 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What are the partitioning components of the HP Virtual Server Environment? (Select four.)
A. vPars
B. nPars
C. containers
D. dynamic LPars
E. Dynamic System Domains
F. HP System Insight Manager
G. HP Integrity Virtual Machines
H. HP Secure Resource Partitions
Answer: ABGH

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NO.2 Which virtualization feature is unique to HP Integrity Servers with VSE versus IBM pSseries servers?
A. resource partitioning within a single OS image
B. sub-processor partitions executing separate OS images
C. single processor partitions executing separate OS images
D. electrically isolated partitions executing separate OS images
Answer: D

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NO.3 There are multiple methods for configuring WBEM authentication credentials for managed systems in
HP Systems Insight Manager.
Select any two of these methods from the options below. (Select two.)
A. mxinitconfig command
B. vseinitconfig command
C. mxagentconfig command
D. mxnodesecurity command
E. First Time Wizard user interface
F. Options -> Protocol Settings -> Discovery user interface
G. Options -> Protocol Settings -> Global Protocol Settings user interface
H. Options -> Protocol Settings -> System Protocol Settings user interface
Answer: DG

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NO.4 Which virtualization feature is unique to HP Integrity Servers with VSE versus SUN Solaris servers?
A. resource partitioning within a single OS image
B. secure resource access within a single OS image
C. temporarily activating processors within a single OS image
D. electrically isolated partitions executing separate OS images
Answer: C

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NO.5 Your company purchases servers for a single application and normally sizes them for the anticipated
maximum load expected in three years. However, many times the actual application never grows beyond
the initial size.
Which HP Virtual Server Environment component reduces costs while ensuring that the capacity is
available if the application grows in size?
A. HP Partitioning solutions
B. HP Utility Pricing solutions
C. HP High Availability solutions
D. HP Virtual Server Environment Suite
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer has several large mission critical workloads, each having different OS tuneables and
application patch levels.
They want to implement a midrange Integrity server solution and use partitioning to provide the highest
levels of isolation.
Which VSE approach is best?
A. nPartitions
B. Virtual Partitions
C. Integrity Virtual Machines
D. Process Resource Manager
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the maximum number of virtual CPUs that can run on a single physical CPU core with HP
Integrity Virtual Machines.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 40
Answer: C

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NO.8 A customer running an Internet store closes their books every night and therefore has an end-of day
processing requirement for extra processor power for one hour.
Which UNIX virtualization solution provides one extra processor for one hour and is available uniquely
from HP (versus IBM or SUN UNIX solutions)?
A. resource partitioning within a single OS image
B. permanently activating a processor within a single OS image
C. temporarily activating a processor within a single OS image for an hour
D. flexible partitioning of multiple OS images with a single processor granularity
Answer: C

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NO.9 In which server infrastructure can you deploy the HP Virtual Server Environment?
A. HP ProLiant servers
B. HP NonStop servers
C. Unix servers from all vendors
D. HP Integrity and HP 9000 servers
Answer: D

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NO.10 Your company has an installed base of servers with an average utilization of 10% and an average
peak utilization of 40%.
What is the best solution to implement to improve server utilization and reduce costs?
A. high availability - increasing the number of redundant servers
B. patching - updating every operating system instance to the latest revision
C. server upgrades - replacing old servers with newer, more powerful servers
D. consolidation - stacking multiple applications and/or operating systems on fewer servers
Answer: D

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NO.11 Click the Task button.
Using drag and drop, match each partitioning product with its isolation level. There is more than one
correct answer.
Answer:

NO.12 Your company has a lot of under-utilized HP Integrity servers. However, whenever a new project starts,
it takes weeks to months to provision (plan, get approval, order, install, and configure) a new server.
How can the HP Virtual Server Environment (HP VSE) solutions help shorten the time to deploy a new
operating system instance?
A. They allow you to order servers with unpurchased capacity.
B. They allow you to outsource some of your peak computing requirements to HP.
C. They help plan new servers so that the server is large enough to handle the workload.
D. They allow you to identify free capacity on your existing servers and provision new operating systems
in that capacity.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has consolidated six L2000 servers to Virtual Partitions in an rx8620 as shown in the diagram.
The Virtual Partitions are managed by Global Workload Manager (gWLM).
Which commands can be used to determine how many processors are allocated to the Mater vPar?
(Select two.)
A. vparstatus on the Mater vPar
B. gwlmstatus on the Mater vPar
C. gwlm monitor on the Mater vPar
D. vparstatus on the gWLM central management server
E. gwlm monitor --workload=Mater on the gWLM central management server
Answer: AE

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NO.14 What is the HP definition of virtualization?
A. the process of abstracting applications and operating systems from physical resources
B. an approach to IT that pools and shares resources so utilization is optimized and supply automatically
meets demand
C. an approach that allows you to run multiple operating systems at the same time on the same server
without rebooting or repartitioning your disk
D. the process of presenting a logical grouping or subset of computing resources so that they can be
accessed in ways that are different than the physical configuration
Answer: B

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NO.15 A customer running an Internet store closes their books every night and therefore has an end-of-day
processing requirement for extra processor power for one hour.
Which virtualization solution can automatically provide one extra processor for one hour and is available
uniquely from HP (versus IBM or SUN UNIX solutions)?
A. Workload Manager to activate iCAP processors
B. PRM to dynamically increase pSet size for one hour
C. Global Workload Manager to activate TiCAP processors for one hour
D. Partition Manager to shift one processor into the needed partition for one hour
Answer: C

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NO.16 Click the Task Button.
Using drag and drop, match each virtualization solution with the correct description.
Answer:

NO.17 Which high availability components are part of the HP Virtual Server Environment? (Select four.)
A. HP Sysplex
B. HP Hyperplex
C. HP Metrocluster
D. HP Serviceguard
E. HP Continentalclusters
F. HP Veritas Cluster Server
G. HP Serviceguard Storage Management Suite
Answer: CDEG

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NO.18 A university implements an Integrity server solution with VSE. Three departments have combined
their money to purchase this server and have configured three vPars; one for each department. There are
no Instant Capacity processors in the system.
Which approach ensures each department receives their fair share of the server, yet also allows other
departments use of unused CPU cycles?
A. gWLM with processor sets
B. gWLM with Own Borrow policies
C. PRM with the fair share scheduler
D. WLM with Temporary Instant Capacity processors
Answer: B

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NO.19 What are the utility pricing components of the HP Virtual Server Environment? (Select four.)
A. Pay-per-use
B. Trial Capacity
C. Instant Capacity
D. On/Off Capacity
E. Standby Capacity
F. Grid Compute Utility
G. Pay-per-transaction
H. Global Instant Capacity
I. Temporary Instant Capacity
J. Capacity Upgrade On Demand
Answer: ACHI

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NO.20 What are the intelligent control products in the HP Virtual Server Environment? (Select four.)
A. HP VirtualCenter
B. HP Virtualization Engine
C. HP Server Migration Pack
D. HP Integrity Essentials iLO
E. HP Systems Insight Manager
F. HP Integrity Essentials VMotion
G. HP Virtual Machine Management Pack
H. HP Integrity Essentials Capacity Advisor
I. HP Integrity Essentials Virtualization Manager
J. HP Integrity Essentials Global Workload Manager
Answer: EHIJ

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NO.21 What are key benefits of server virtualization?
A. improved reliability and high availability, lower total cost of ownership
B. higher server utilization, increased time to production for new systems
C. higher server utilization, lower total cost of ownership, better application performance
D. system administration is simplified due to less complexity, better application performance
Answer: C

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NO.22 A university implements an Integrity server solution with VSE. Three departments have combined
their money to purchase this server and have configured three vPars; one for each department. There are
Instant Capacity processors in the system.
Which approach ensures each department receives their fair share of the server, yet also allows other
departments use of unused CPU cycles?
A. PRM with fair share scheduler groups
B. gWLM with fair share scheduler groups
C. WLM with a processor set for each vPar
D. gWLM with Own Borrow policies on each vPar
Answer: D

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NO.23 Where can Secure Resource Partitions (that use HP Process Resource Manager) run? (Select two.)
A. Virtual Partitions
B. Linux on Integrity
C. HP Integrity Virtual Machines Host
D. HP Integrity Virtual Machines Guest
Answer: AD

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NO.24 Click the Task button.
Using drag and drop, match each product with its minimum size.
Answer:

NO.25 Which command line interface (CLI) command may be used to start (power on) a virtual machine?
(Select two.)
A. hpvmstart
B. hpvmstatus
C. hpvmcreate
D. hpvmmodify
E. hpvmconsole
Answer: AE

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NO.26 Which HP partitioning products will run inside an nPartition? (Select three.)
A. VMware
B. containers
C. Dynamic LPars
D. Virtual Partitions
E. Dynamic System Domains
F. Secure Resource Partitions
G. HP Integrity Virtual Machines
Answer: DFG

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NO.27 HP Serviceguard Manager can manage nodes that run which operating systems? (Select two.)
A. Linux
B. HP-UX v11i
C. HP-UX 10.20
D. OpenVMS v7.x
E. Window 2003 Advanced Server
F. Windows 2003 Exchange Server
Answer: AB

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NO.28 Click the Exhibit button.
You want to manage Bullseye and Hannah vPars with HP Global Workload Manager (gWLM). You want
to ensure that, if possible, utilization does not exceed 85% for either workload; even if it means activating
Temporary Instant Capacity. In addition, you also want to maximize the flexibility of the solution.
How should you set up the gWLM policies?
A. CPU Utilization policy with a min of 1 CPU, max of 5 CPUs, target utilization of 85%
B. Own Borrow policy with a min of 1 CPU, max of 8 CPUs, target utilization of 85%
C. CPU Utilization policy with a min of 1 CPU, max of 7 CPUs, target utilization of 85%
D. Percent Utilization policy with a min of 1 CPU, max of 5 CPUs, target utilization of 85%
Answer: C

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NO.29 Click the Task button.
Using drag and drop, match each partitioning product with the correct I/O resource granularity.
Answer:

NO.30 Which virtualization feature is unique to HP Integrity Servers with VSE versus SUN Solaris servers?
A. resource partitioning within a single OS image
B. secure resource access within a single OS image
C. sub-processor partitions executing separate OS images
D. electrically isolated partitions executing separate OS images
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-841
Exam Name: HP (Designing and Implementing HP SAN Solutions)
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Total Q&A: 187 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What are HP SAN management strategies? (Choose two.)
A.automated policy based management
B.policy based backup using the storage management appliance
C.automatic performance optimization using sophisticated high performance management agents
D.storage virtualization using in-band management functionality of the storage management appliance
E.simplified, centralized storage management using standardized web based GUIs residing on a storage
management appliance
Correct:A E

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NO.2 What is the internal M-series switch latency of a HP Fibre Channel switch?
A.between 1us and 2us maximum
B.3us
C.5us
D.33us
E.650us
Correct:A

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NO.3 What characteristic has the greatest impact on disk performance?
A.bus type
B.drive latency
C.I/O transfer size
D.upgrade from a 1Gb/s HBA to a 2Gb/s HBA
Correct:B

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NO.4 What is the correct statement about zoning in an interoperable fabric?
A.WWPN zoning is the only allowed method.
B.A mixture of domain ID, port number and WWPN zoning is allowed.
C.Domain ID and port number zoning are the only allowed methods.
D.Zoning is not allowed. The only way to segment a fabric is using the VSAN technology of C-Series
switches.
Correct:A

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NO.5 Which statement applies to trunking on B-Series switches?
A.Oversubsciption is impossible with trunking.
B.If one ISL of a trunk fails, the whole trunk fails.
C.Trunking increases the availability because an I/O is not interrupted, even if the master ISL of a trunk
fails.
D.Trunking is more effecient than individual ISLs because it is less probable that congestion will be
experienced.
Correct:D

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NO.6 What is the maximum distance per cable segment using 9/125 micron single-mode cable and
long wavelength 2 Gb SFPs?
A.1 km
B.5 km
C.10 km
D.35 km
E.100 km
Correct:C

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NO.7 The sum of the wait time (in queues) and the service time is _____.
A.data rate
B.request rate
C.response time
D.utilization time
Correct:C

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NO.8 In a single fabric, when multiple paths exist between a host and its storage, which statement is
true?
A.The result could be an unstable fabric.
B.Load sharing is automatically set to static.
C.The FSPF protocol determines best route.
D.The path used is determined by port priority.
Correct:C

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NO.9 What is throughput?
A.the number of requests processed per second
B.the number of I/O requests satisfied per unit of time
C.the amount of time a device needs to process a request
D.the time a device takes to process a request from issuance to completion
Correct:B

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NO.10 What are the three types of fabric zoning on B-series switches? (Choose three.)
A.static zoning
B.software zoning
C.hardware zoning
D.mixmode zoning
E.QuickLoop zoning
Correct:B C D

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NO.11 In the SAN configuration, assume a goal of redundancy for everything. How many Storage
Management Appliances are needed?
A.1
B.2
C.4
D.6
Correct:B

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NO.12 Which software module of HP OpenView Storage Area Manager (SAM) can you use to control
the access of a managed host to a managed storage device?
A.Storage Builder
B.Storage Allocater
C.Storage Accountant
D.Storage Node Manager
Correct:B

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NO.13 Three LUNs, sda, sdb and sdc, are connected to a Linux server. You shutdown the server and
physically remove sdb. What happens after the server reboots?
A.The LUNs sda and sdc are accessible, LUN sdb is not listed in the device scan.
B.The LUN sda is accessible, LUN sdc is now sdb and accessible using this name.
C.The LUNs sda and sdc are accessible, LUN sdb is listed as offline in the device scan.
D.The LUNs sda and sdc are accessible, LUN sdb is renamed into sdvb simulating a virtual device.
Correct:B

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NO.14 In Web Tools, which is a valid switch state?
A.down
B.marginal
C.segmented
D.reconfiguring
Correct:A

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NO.15 Which three infrastructure components are supported from multiple vendors in an HP Open
heterogenous SAN? (Choose three.)
A.hubs
B.switches
C.ATM gateways
D.storage systems
E.operating systems
Correct:B D E

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NO.16 A company is running an application that is READ intensive. They are more concerned with
effective READ performance than WRITE performance. They have a limited number of disks so
they need to minimize RAID overhead. What type of RAID should they use?
A.RAID 0
B.RAID 1
C.RAID 1+0
D.RAID 5
Correct:D

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NO.17 What is a Fibre Channel fabric?
A.one or more switches connected together, sharing the same name and routing table
B.two or more switches connected together, sharing the same name and routing table
C.one or more switches connected together, each having its own independent name and routing table
D.two or more switches connected together, each having its own independent name and routing table
Correct:A

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NO.18 What can you do to minimize communication delays between a host and its storage subsystem?
A.cross couple multiple ISLs
B.ensure there is at least one switch hop
C.connect the two devices to the same switch
D.configure a maximum of four active host ports per ISL
Correct:C

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NO.19 Which HP SAN Management tool is a highly scalable, Java-based application that manages
multiple B-Series switches and fabrics in real-time?
A.HP StorageWorks Fabric Manager
B.Management Appliance Software v2.1
C.HP OpenView Storage Node Manager
D.HP StorageWorks High Availability Fabric Manager (HAFM)
E.HP OpenView Storage Management Appliance III and HP OpenView Storage Management Appliance
software v2.1
Correct:A

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NO.20 Which three operating systems are supported in an HP heterogeneous SAN? (Choose three.)
A.HP NSK
B.IBM AIX
C.IBM OS400
D.Tru64 UNIX
E.Microsoft Windows 2003 Server
Correct:B D E

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Exam Code: HP0-S18
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP ProLiant ML/DL Servers)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which technology enables Fibre Channel to communicate between SAN
facilities over IP networks?
A. point-to-point Fibre Channel
B. extended Fibre Channel
C. storage tunneling
D. long distance macro bending
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the advantage of the iSCSI technology?
A. has no distance limitation
B. uses same data transmission protocol as Fibre Channel
C. provides support for ESCON protocol
D. is better than Fibre Channel technology for large database transfers and very large input/output
operations
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the benefit of SAS connectors?
A. SAS drives can be daisy-chained during configuration.
B. SAS connectors enable additional diagnostic features.
C. SAS uses the same electrical and physical interfaces as SATA.
D. SAS host controllers recognize SCSI protocols.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What features are included in both HP Support Plus and HP Support Plus 24?
(Select two.)
A. extended business hours coverage
B. annual OS patch analysis
C. escalation management
D. Fix Time/Call-to-Repair
E. remote monitoring, analysis, and management
Answer: A, C

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NO.5 Which memory protection technology can detect 2-bit errors in a single byte
and correct single-bit errors?
A. Automatic Parity Checking
B. Battery Backed Write Cache
C. Error Checking and Correcting
D. Error Detecting and Correction
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-J15
Exam Name: HP (HP StorageWorks MASE 2088 Delta Exam)
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Total Q&A: 160 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 You are merging two fabrics and receive a fabric segmentation error that indicates the definition of a
zone object in one fabric is different from its definition in the other fabric. What can cause this error?
A: duplicate IDs
B: zone type mismatch
C: zone content mismatch
D: zone configuration mismatch
Correct Answers: C

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NO.2 A customer is expanding a SAN to 400 switch ports, but has limited rack space. Which single Director
switch model is recommended?
A: Cisco MDS 9509 Director
B: Cisco MDS 9513 Director
C: HP StorageWorks 4/500 SAN Director
D: HP StorageWorks 4/256 SAN Director
Correct Answers: B

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NO.3 In B-Series virtual fabrics, which feature allows you to access devices in another virtual fabric?
A: Inter-VSAN Routing
B: Inter-Fabric Routing
C: Cross-VSAN Routing
D: Cross-Fabric Routing
Correct Answers: B

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NO.4 Which tool would you use to quickly survey a SAN environment?
A: HP SAN Surveyor
B: HP SAN Designer
C: HP CommandView
D: HP SAN Visibility Tool
Correct Answers: D

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NO.5 Which password authentication service can be used on Brocade switches in addition to the local switch
database?
A: NIS
B: LDAP
C: RADIUS
D: Kerberos
Correct Answers: C

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NO.6 Which application can be used to set up network shares and provision iSCSI storage?
A: Brocade Fabric Manager
B: HP Data Protector Express
C: HP CommandView EVA 7.0
D: HP All-in-One Storage Manager
Correct Answers: D

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NO.7 Which zoning enforcement types do Fibre Channel switches provide to protect against unauthorized
access? (Select two.)
A:access authorization
B:port-zoning authentication
C:RADIUS server authentication
D:directory access authorization
E:soft-plus zoning by login authentication
Correct Answers: A, E

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NO.8 Where do you find the essential security elements in B-Series Fibre Channel switches running
firmware v5.3.x?
A: base Fabric OS
B: Secure Fabric OS
C: ISL Trunking manager
D: switch port web interface
Correct Answers: A

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NO.9 A customer decides on HP c-Class BladeSystem as a corporate standard for servers. You must
implement SAN integration of the blades into a very large fabric. The customer is concerned about the
maximum switch count. Which interconnects will you recommend? (Select two.)
A:QLogic 4Gb Fabric Switch
B:Cisco MDS 9124e Fabric Switch
C:Emulex 4Gb Advanced SAN Switch
D:HP 4Gb Virtual Connect Fibre Channel Module
E:Brocade 4Gb SAN Switch in Access Gateway mode
Correct Answers: D, E

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NO.10 Which tool helps you design a SAN that includes HP Blade servers?
A: SANsurfer
B: SAN Visibility
C: SAN Designer
D: Blade Designer
Correct Answers: C

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NO.11 Under ideal operating conditions, what is the maximum supported, long-wave transceiver distance with
B or C-Series Switches and 4Gb SFPs?
A: 4km
B: 10km
C: 35km
D: 100km
Correct Answers: B

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NO.12 A customer wants to replicate data between two sites 200 km apart. Which HP SAN product would you
recommend?
A: MPX 100
B: MPX 110
C: MPR 100
D: MPR 110
Correct Answers: B

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NO.13 How many drives can be held by the M6412 drive shelf?
A: 8
B: 12
C: 14
D: 16
Correct Answers: B

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NO.14 Which SAN services are provided by the HP StorageWorks 400 Multi-Protocol Router (MPR)? (Select
two.)
A:ISL zoning
B:FCIP tunneling
C:IP-IP subnet routing
D:iSCSI-FC translation
E:FC-FC subnet routing
Correct Answers: B, E

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NO.15 Brocade Secure Fabric OS is running on a fabric with four switches. If you are logged in to one of the
switches and change the Admin password, which switch or switches will have the password changed?
A: all the switches
B: LDAP-enabled switches only
C: only the switch you are logged in to
D: only switches connected to the Ethernet
Correct Answers: A

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NO.16 John, your customer, has a SAN built on B-Series switches. He calls you because he heard about a
new feature which allows him to distribute administrator responsibilities among his staff. After research,
what is your recommendation to John?
A: Upgrade to Secure Fabric OS version 5.2.
B: Purchase the Advanced Administration license.
C: Implement Distributed Administration through Fabric Manager.
D: Implement Admin Domains available since Fabric OS version 5.2.
Correct Answers: D

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NO.17 How can you improve iSCSI host performance in a SAN?
A: Upgrade to CommandView 7.
B: Use NICs with TOE (TCP/IP Offload Engine).
C: Enable NPIV (N_Port ID Virtualization) support.
D: Disable SLP (Service Location Protocol) Service Agent.
Correct Answers: B

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NO.18 What are benefits of logical fabrics? (Select three.)
A:port count reduction
B:easier administration
C:fabric service isolation
D:increased performance
E:fault propagation minimization
F:device sharing across logical fabrics
Correct Answers: C, E, F

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NO.19 Which SAN switch management tool, previously only available as an embedded version, is now
separately available on CD?
A: Emulex EZpilot
B: McData HAFM
C: Cisco Fabric Manager
D: Brocade Fabric Watch
Correct Answers: C

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NO.20 What is an advantage of iSCSI when compared to Fibre Channel?
A: less protocol overhead
B: no additional customer knowledge required
C: easily provisioned through HP Storage Essentials SRM
D: existing Ethernet infrastructure can be used to create a SAN
Correct Answers: D

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Exam Code: HP0-S17
Exam Name: HP (Integrating and Managing HP BladeSystem in the Enterprise)
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Total Q&A: 130 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which industry standard protocols are used by HP SIM? (Select two.)
A.XML
B.TFTP
C.iSCSI
D.WBEM
E.NetBEUI
ANSWER: AD

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NO.2 Which industry standard technologies are compatible with the SB600c AiO Storage Blade? (Select
two.)
A.ATA
B.SAS
C.SCSI
D.iSCSI
E.SATA
ANSWER: BD

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NO.3 A customer that usually works with a c3000 Enclosure needs to use the external DVD drive on a
c7000 Enclosure and connect the drive to all servers in the c7000 Enclosure.
How can the external DVD drive on the c7000 Enclosure be accessed?
A.Use the DVD drive integrated in the c7000 Enclosure.
B.Use the DVD drive connected to the downlink port of the c7000 Enclosure.
C.Use the DVD drive connected to the USB port on an Onboard Administrator module.
D.Use the DVD drive attached through the serial/USB/video cable attached to any server blade.
ANSWER: C

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NO.4 A BladeSystem enclosure is managed by one Onboard Administrator that failed. Which functionality is
still available? (Select two.)
A.iLO 2 is accessible.
B.All fans are up and running.
C.Server blades can access the SAN.
D.New server blades can be added and powered up.
E.New interconnect devices can be added and powered up.
ANSWER: BC

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NO.5 What is the purpose of the HP StorageWorks SB40c Storage Blade?
A.provides a blade form factor tape solution for any server supporting the TCP/IP protocol
B.provides a blade form factor networked shared storage for any server supporting IP-based storage
(iSCSI)
C.provides additional storage capabilities dedicated to a single server blade within the same c7000
Enclosure
D.provides additional storage capabilities dedicated to a single server blade in another linked c7000
Enclosure
ANSWER: C

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NO.6 An administrator configures an HP c7000 Enclosure using Onboard Administrator. Which option can
be used to automatically configure IP addresses for all iLO cards and interconnect modules?
A.Insight Display
B.Virtual Connect Manager
C.Interconnect LAN Manager
D.Enclosure Bay IP Addressing (EBIPA)
ANSWER: D

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NO.7 Which interconnect module offered by HP has the capability of assigning a configuration profile to a
specific server blade?
A.GbE2c Switch
B.Cisco 3020 Switch
C.Virtual Connect Ethernet
D.Ethernet Pass-Thru Module
ANSWER: C

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NO.8 You are replacing one of your redundant GbE2c interconnect switch modules in your c7000 Enclosure.
What must you be aware of when you install a replacement GbE2C switch with default settings into the
enclosure?
A.Crosslink ports are disabled and redundancy is lost between switches.
B.Crosslink ports are enabled and will cause a loop in your switch topology.
C.Uplink ports are disabled and must be enabled manually in the switch manager.
D.Downlink ports are disabled and must be enabled manually in the switch manager.
ANSWER: A

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NO.9 You are administrating several c-Class enclosures and are looking for a unified authentication system
for all iLO cards and Onboard Administrator modules.
What is the proper solution?
A.HP Protect Tools
B.Credential Manager
C.Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
D.Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
ANSWER: D

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NO.10 Which devices can be assigned an IP address through Enclosure Bay IP Addressing (EBIPA) for
c-Class server blades? (Select two.)
A.iLO 2 cards
B.interconnects
C.Insight Display
D.LAN interfaces of mezzanine cards
E.iSCSI target IP address on server blades
ANSWER: AB

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NO.11 Your customer is looking for an Ethernet interconnect with Fibre uplinks for their c7000 Enclosure.
Which interconnects should be considered? (Select two.)
A.GbE2c Switch
B.Infiniband switch
C.Cisco Catalyst 3020
D.GbE2c Layer 2/3 Switch
E.Ethernet Pass-Thru Module
ANSWER: CD

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NO.12 Which industry standard memory technology can be used by Intel Xeon-based c-Class server blades
to provide additional protection against failed or degrading FB-DIMMs? (Select two.)
A.Advanced ECC
B.mirrored memory
C.registered DIMMs
D.online spare memory
E.interleaved memory support
ANSWER: BD

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NO.13 Which features does Virtual Connect Ethernet module (VC-Enet) provide in a network environment?
(Select two.)
A.VC-Enet can stack across four enclosures in a rack.
B.VC-Enet appears as an HP ProCurve device to other network devices.
C.VC-Enet will not add any new switches for the network administrator to manage.
D.VC-Enet domains can be created directly using the Onboard Administrator console.
ANSWER: AC

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NO.14 After replacing a failed drive in a server blade, your customer complains about long logical drive time
recovery. What can you do to reduce recovery time?
A.Migrate the logical drive to RAID 6.
B.Install MPIO software on the server blade.
C.Set the rebuild priority to high on the controller.
D.Enable the Tagged Command Queuing (TCQ) feature on the hard drive.
ANSWER: C

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NO.15 Which service features are included in the Enhanced Network Installation and Startup Service for
BladeSystem Switches? (Select two.)
A.service planning interview
B.network device configuration
C.comprehensive porting and migration
D.systematic analysis of configurations for software patch version inconsistencies
E.proactive and rapid-response services to protect strategic operations against downtime risks
ANSWER: AB

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NO.16 Which management suite delivers core management functionality for the HP BladeSystem solution,
including server deployment, health monitoring, performance monitoring, vulnerability scanning and patch
management?
A.HP Storage Essentials
B.HP Operations Software
C.Insight Control Environment
D.HP Systems Insight Manager
ANSWER: C

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NO.17 Your customer has a c7000 Enclosure and two power supplies installed in bays 1 and 2. They are
switching from single-phase power to a three-phase power subsystem with full redundancy.
Which action is necessary to make this configuration work and be supported?
A.Install 4 additional power supplies.
B.Move the power supplies to bays 1 and 4.
C.Turn off the Dynamic Power Saver feature.
D.Enable three-phase power using the Onboard Administrator.
ANSWER: A

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NO.18 Your customer wants to replace an existing c3000 Enclosure with a c7000 Enclosure. Which
components from the c3000 Enclosure can be reused in the c7000 Enclosure? (Select three.)
A.fans
B.power supplies
C.interconnect modules
D.server and storage blades
E.Onboard Administrator module
ANSWER: ACD

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NO.19 A customer is looking for a virtualization solution for their data center. Their main area of concern is
server down time.
You have identified the x86-based virtualization candidates. Which platform best suits the customer's
needs?
A.scale-up
B.scale-out
C.Integrity VSE
D.single server virtual consolidation
ANSWER: B

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NO.20 A customer has a Virtual Connect managed enclosure and needs to move one of the blades to a
non-virtual connect enclosure.
What should be done so that duplicate MAC addresses and WWNs do not appear in the datacenter due
to server blade deployment?
A.Enable the Reset to factory default switch on the blade system board.
B.Run the erase utility on the blade before plugging the server to the network.
C.First delete all MAC and WWNs configurations while the server is in the VC managed enclosure and
then move the server to the non-VC managed enclosure.
D.MAC addresses and WWNs are automatically returned to factory defaults when the server is moved to
the non-Virtual connect enclosure so no duplicate MAC addresses or WWNs appear.
ANSWER: D

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NO.21 An administrator needs to monitor performance of every drive connected to the Smart Array controller.
Each drive is configured as a single logical drive.
Which tool can be used?
A.Insight Diagnostic
B.Radia Performance Manager
C.Performance Management Pack
D.Windows Server Performance Monitor
ANSWER: C

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NO.22 Which industry standard processor options are supported in the HP BL460c Server Blade? (Select two.)
A.Dual-Core Intel Xeon
B.Quad-Core Intel Xeon
C.Dual-Core Intel Itanium2
D.Dual-Core AMD Opteron
E.Quad-Core AMD Opteron
ANSWER: AB

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NO.23 Which ProLiant Essentials Value Pack is an integrated power monitoring and management
application that provides centralized monitoring and control of datacenter power consumption and thermal
output?
A.Insight Power Manager
B.HP Rack and Power Manager
C.Performance Management Pack
D.Vulnerability and Patch Management Pack
ANSWER: A

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NO.24 A customer wants to deploy a c7000 Enclosure and six server blades in a datacenter with limited
power. How can they ensure the solution fits within the available datacenter power envelope?
A.The customer needs to make sure they have at least 6750 watts of available power in every case.
B.Use the HP BladeSystem Sizer to determine how much power is needed for the configuration they want
to deploy.
C.Use the HP Rack and Power tool to determine how much power is needed for the configuration they
want to deploy.
D.Use the Enterprise Configurator in ActiveAnswers to determine how much power is needed for the
configuration they want to deploy.
ANSWER: B

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NO.25 Which industry standard memory technologies are supported in a BL465c Server Blade? (Select two.)
A.memory sparing
B.memory mirroring
C.memory interleaving
D.ECC and Advanced ECC
E.833MHz maximum speed DIMMs
ANSWER: CD

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NO.26 What is an advantage of a c7000 Enclosure compared to a c3000 Enclosure in an enterprise
environment?
A.N+N redundancy in the power subsystem
B.Virtual Connect and storage blade support
C.interconnect redundancy for integrated NICs
D.application of Onboard Administrator advanced license
ANSWER: C

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NO.27 Which interconnect option creates domains and stacks LAN modules across c7000 Enclosures?
A.GbE2c Ethernet
B.Virtual Connect Ethernet
C.Ethernet Pass-Thru Module
D.Virtual Connect Fibre Channel
ANSWER: B

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NO.28 Which service features are included in the Enhanced Network Installation and Startup Service for
BladeSystem Switches? (Select two.)
A.verification of operation
B.confirmation of software revisions
C.comprehensive porting and migration
D.systematic analysis of configurations for software patch version inconsistencies
E.proactive and rapid-response services to protect strategic operations against downtime risks
ANSWER: AB

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NO.29 The Virtual Connect Fibre Channel module uses which type of Port ID Virtualization protocol to
aggregate multiple Fibre Channel HBAs over a smaller number of physical uplinks?
A.E_Port
B.F_Port
C.L_Port
D.N_Port
ANSWER: D

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NO.30 Which tool tests and evaluates the hardware and software configuration of systems where HP SIM is
installed or is being considered for installation?
A.Insight Control Advisor
B.HP SIM Capacity Planner
C.Active Answers Solution Sizer
D.Site Installation Preparation Utility
ANSWER: A

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